it stood in 1856, and the legal enslavement of blacks, could the argument be made that scott was as chief justice taney wrote, not a citizen of missouri and therefor had no standing to sue the united states?
Also, the fugitive slave act of 1850 said that any slaves in free territory could be captured and returned to their owners. So even though scott was taken to free territory by his owner, that act did not per the fugitive slave act make him free.
Libs, please spare me the epithets and cries of racist. Heard them all before and if that is all you have, save your key strokes and your pique.
Conservatives don't like judicial activism. And if tanney had ruled in favor of scott, would he not have been guilty of exactly that, ignoring the constitution on the issue and replacing it with what he thought best?
One reason we have such an issue with abortion is that it was never legislated into existence but rather "found" as a "right" in the constitution. That of course is preposterous, regardless of your feelings on the issue.
Slavery was abolished with the 13th amendment. It was passed, signed, and ratified by the states. It is inarguable. Until it was abolished, it was legal. Immoral but legal, and the justices on the supreme court were as today, not charged with making laws but with applying the constitution to issues of law that came before it.
Again, save your histrionics and lame virtue signaling for other issues. I would be interested in reasoned replies, devoid of personal attack.
That should limit the discussion to the right side of the political spectrum on this board.
http://law2.umkc.edu/faculty/PROJECTS/FTRIALS/conlaw/ScottvSandford.html