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His letters to Romans and Galatians
Posted on: February 24, 2023 at 09:52:30 CT
CulturedDan MU
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In the first two chapters of Romans, Paul establishes that both Gentile and Jew are under the wrath of God for "Ungodliness and Unrighteousness" (note there's no mention of violating the law).
Then he says this (Rm 3:20-22) "For by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since through the law comes knowledge of sin.
21 But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it— 22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction: 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, 25 whom God put forward as a propitiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God's righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins. 26 It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
27 Then what becomes of our boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? By a law of works? No, but by the law of faith. 28 For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law."
No one is justified through works of the law, and Righteousness is found OUTSIDE of the law through faith. The rest of the letter re-emphasizes this.
Galatians further points out what the purpose of the law was. He starts this in 2:19 saying "For through the law I DIED to the law" - in order so he can live for Christ.
I won't quote all of Chapter 3 - but the emphasis is clear. No one is justified by the law - but Abraham believed and it was counted to him as righteousness (notice the word righteousness - made right - only God is righteous. How can sinful man be righteous? Through Faith! This is also where he points out the absurdity of finding our righteousness through the law by pointing out that Abraham was declared righteous 430 years before the law was given - and that the law did not add to or take away anything regarding the covenant given to Abraham (3:15-18)
The end of chapter 3 into chapter 4 then tells us the purpose of the law was to "increase transgression" "to act as a guardian/schoolmaster UNTIL Christ came (3:24) the time appointed by the father (4:2)" - That time was the fullness of time, when God sent forth his son to redeem us who were under the law to make us sons, not slaves - and guess what the were enslaved to..the LAW! (4:8-10)
He then gives the comparison to the slave woman and son (Hagar/Ishmael) and the free woman and son (Sara/Isaac). Note how he describe them
Hagar = son born of flesh (i.e. human effort) = the covenant of Sinai (the law) = Current Jerusalem (i.e. the current Jewish religious system following the law)
Chapters 5 and 6 then talk of not placing yourself back under the slavery of the law (and being at risk of being "severed from Christ" (5:4), but to walk in the Spirit - which means not living according to fleshly effort.
Thanks for listening
Then he says this (Rm 3:20-22) "For by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since through the law comes knowledge of sin.
21 But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it— 22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction: 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, 25 whom God put forward as a propitiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God's righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins. 26 It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
27 Then what becomes of our boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? By a law of works? No, but by the law of faith. 28 For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law."
No one is justified through works of the law, and Righteousness is found OUTSIDE of the law through faith. The rest of the letter re-emphasizes this.
Galatians further points out what the purpose of the law was. He starts this in 2:19 saying "For through the law I DIED to the law" - in order so he can live for Christ.
I won't quote all of Chapter 3 - but the emphasis is clear. No one is justified by the law - but Abraham believed and it was counted to him as righteousness (notice the word righteousness - made right - only God is righteous. How can sinful man be righteous? Through Faith! This is also where he points out the absurdity of finding our righteousness through the law by pointing out that Abraham was declared righteous 430 years before the law was given - and that the law did not add to or take away anything regarding the covenant given to Abraham (3:15-18)
The end of chapter 3 into chapter 4 then tells us the purpose of the law was to "increase transgression" "to act as a guardian/schoolmaster UNTIL Christ came (3:24) the time appointed by the father (4:2)" - That time was the fullness of time, when God sent forth his son to redeem us who were under the law to make us sons, not slaves - and guess what the were enslaved to..the LAW! (4:8-10)
He then gives the comparison to the slave woman and son (Hagar/Ishmael) and the free woman and son (Sara/Isaac). Note how he describe them
Hagar = son born of flesh (i.e. human effort) = the covenant of Sinai (the law) = Current Jerusalem (i.e. the current Jewish religious system following the law)
Chapters 5 and 6 then talk of not placing yourself back under the slavery of the law (and being at risk of being "severed from Christ" (5:4), but to walk in the Spirit - which means not living according to fleshly effort.
Thanks for listening
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His letters to Romans and Galatians - dangertim MU - 2/24 09:52:30